Regarding translation effect on mixed ratios; the rule says when using end-of-year balance and having I/S item over the B/S item, and having the foreign currency appreciating, translation will result in smaller than original ratio.
If you look at Kaplan, reading #15, module quiz 15.5, 15.6, question 3, we’re having the local currency depreciating, which implies the foreign currency is appreciating. Why the translated ROA (12.8%) is higher than the original (11.9)?!!! as per the above rule, it must be lower