 # mwr

though the chances of this are low… can anyone please tell me how to do it on a BA II plus professional i’m doing everything right … as explained in other posts… but say the first example in schweser… pg 12, bk 5 CF0=900,000 CF1=0, F01 = 14 CF2= 50,000 CF3=0, F03=14 ( CF4= - 1466553 instead of 24.90% … i’m getting 1.49% ??? what am i doing wrong ? … i just can’t figure out … is there some formatting of the calculator reqd.

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mwr is the IRR calculation.

This is what you need to do: CF0=900,000 C01=50,000 F01=1 C02= - 1466553 IRR ?? = 24% The calculator will assume that you received the cash flow at the middle of the month. This is the ONLY case in which you could use the calculator for this type of problem.

whats the Fo?

cati Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > This is what you need to do: > > CF0=900,000 > CF1=50,000 > F01=1 > CF2= - 1466553 > > IRR ?? = 24% > > The calculator will assume that you received the > cash flow at the middle of the month. This is the > ONLY case in which you could use the calculator > for this type of problem. are you sure ? … bec i thought you just had to adjust ‘F0’ for the number of days and you could work with any kind of cash flow

Yeah I’m pretty sure. For MWR just plug the cash flow in the calculator without worriying about the days. I think it is very unlikely that we will get a problem like this with unequal periods (CF on a day other than day 15). Otherwise we cannot use the calculator for the IRR.

thank you. i wasted half an hour on this before concluding that probably the battery needed a replacement 