In the Kaplan Book, it mentions that Transfer coeeficient (TC)
can be thought of as the correlation between actual active weights and optimal active weights.
in another paragraph, it states that " more accurately, transfer coefficient is the cross-sectional correlation between forecasted active returns and the actual weights adjusted for risk
I read these two definitions again and again and just dont see they can be the same (connection). Can someone help explain why TC can be explained in these two different ways? Thanks!