Consolidated Enterprises issues €10 million face value, five-year bonds with a coupon rate of 6.5 percent. At the time of issuance, the market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate method of amortisation, the carrying value after one year will be *closest* to?

Annual coupons, or semiannual coupons?

(It won’t make much of a difference, but you might as well see the correct calculation for the situation facing you.)

Annual Coupn

I got the answer as $10,173,255.28. Could somebody else confirm this? Still learning the concept.

To get the price of the bonds initially:

*FV* = 10,000,000

*PMT* = 650,000

*n* = 5

*i* = 6

Solve for *PV* = −10,210,618

The first year’s interest expense is:

$10,210,618 × 6% = $612,637

The first year’s amortization of the premium is:

$650,000 − $612,637 = $37,363

The carrying value after one year is:

$10,210,618 − $37,363 = **$10,173,255**

S2000 has worked out ALL the steps, But buried in all that, if all you want is the carrying value of the bonds, it will be the present Value of the remaining cash flows on the bond AT THE ORIGINAL YIELD TO MATURITY.