OK, With the below question I said the shares outstanding was 1,000,000
My reasons were this: At the bottom of the question it says the convertible bonds are dilutive therefore they surely should not be included in the calculation (brings earnings down)
Warrant Excercise price is out of the money so these are not included either.
Therefore is the answer not just the same 1,000,000
In the answer tab below they have converted the bonds and i’m, not sure why? Am I missing something?
Thanks so much
An analyst gathered the following data about a company:
- 1,000,000 shares of common are outstanding at the beginning of the year.
- 10,000 6% convertible bonds (conversion ratio is 20 to 1) were issued at par June 30 of this year.
- The company has 100,000 warrants outstanding all year with an exercise price of $25 per share.
- The average stock price for the period is $20, and the ending stock price is $30.
If the convertible bonds are considered dilutive, the number of shares of common stock that the analyst should use to calculate diluted earnings per share is:
A) 1,000,000. B) 1,100,000. C) 1,266,667.
Your answer: A was incorrect. The correct answer was B) 1,100,000.
When the capital structure contains options or warrants, the treasury stock method uses the average price. In this situation, the warrants are antidilutive because the exercise price of the warrant ($25) is higher than the market price of the stock ($20). Thus, warrants are excluded. Otherwise, common shares would be reduced.
original shares of common stock
Then add the impact of the bond conversion:
(10,000)(20) × (6/12) = 100,000
Thus, the adjusted denominator for fully diluted EPS is:
1,000,000 + 100,000 = 1,100,000