This question doesn’t fit neatly into any of the forums, so Level 3 it is:
Finance theory states that the difference between a bond’s z-spread and its option adjusted spread is defined as the option cost, or the risk measured in basis points associated with a bond’s embedded option. In practice, I’ve seen it largely used as a basis for relative value.
For illustrative and reference purposes: OAS + Option Cost = Z-Spread
There is greater context here that will provide only minimal value to the question at hand. In short, I am working on a project that requires me to isolate and estimate a Non-Agency IO’s option cost for use in valuing the bond’s embedded derivative (blame the accountants).
Have any of you seen instances whereby the OAS is greater than the Z-Spread, implying a negative option cost? If so, how can you qualitatively describe what exactly a negative option cost represents… and why it could actually be negative? The magnititude (and signage (+/-)) of the option cost, in the model that I have designed, dramatically affects the component value assigned to the host contract and the embedded derivative.
If you can, please keep this in the context of Non-Agency IOs…