Hi Guys,
I am a bit confused around Question 2C in the Derivatives-Options reading. I am not confused about calculations, but rather around the purpose of the question.
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I did all the calculations right. It shows that the person will LOSE $200 by longing the call and shorting the stock. But why would anybody engage in this arbitrage transaction that earns less than the risk-free rate?
Thanks in advance…
A.