given that the question says we must use a dividend discount model and that we use the ggm i assumed we have to plug in dividends in year 1 to 5 in our calculator and then compute terminal value at year 5 and pv everything back to see what the npv is. why are we only taking into account the terminal value here and using that as the intrinsic value. this doesn’t make sense to me.
would anyone know? happy to paste the question here if that helps?