This is how I arrived to it on BA II plus professional, FV=-800, PV=0, I/Y=6, N=5, CPT PMT=141.92. Add annual interest of $60 (6% of $1000) to get $201.92. Can anyone please confirm if the method is correct?

Youâ€™re calculating what annual dollar amount is needed to accumulate to the $800 required at time 5, which you have correctly calculated as 141.92. In addition, you have to pay the annual coupon of $60 for a combined total of 201.92. seanwilliamâ€™s formula is also correct: it is using time 0 as the focal date for all TVM calcs, whereas your formula is using time 5 as the focal date.