it is A… you can determine optimal portfolio without knowing investor risk aversion… because the weights gives you the best risk for expected returns, then with a given riskfree asset you’ll get the newportfolio… risk aversion comes into play in chosing the weight between optimal portfolio and riskfree asset… peace
Hey, that was my thinking as well but the book says C
Active portlio managment and seperation therom supports the conclusion that all investors should hold a combinaton of the Risk free asset and the market portfolio. This allows the portfolio manager to identify the optimal risk potfolio indpendent to the investors risk aversion. The optimal portfolio for an indivisual investor is a combination of the risk free asset and the optimal risky ASSET portfolio that does not depend on investors degree of risk averison …
Tobin’s Separation Theorem says that everyone picks a portfolio on the CML. Thus, the choice of risky assets is the same for everyone; what differs is the percentage of risky assets and the % of the risk-free asset.
Thus, one’s choice of which risky assets to hold is independent of risk aversion: the risky assets chosen are the same for everyone.
The optimal portfolio, on the other hand, does depend on one’s risk aversion: that’s where along the CML you pick your portfolio.