# Prac Exam V.1 P132, Q96

The answer gives: Fair MV (beginning) = 36’712 Actual Return = +2’500 (given in question) Employer Contribution = +5’000 (disclosed in footnote???) Benefit Paid = -2’206 (disclosed in footnote) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Why is employer contribution +5000? How did they get this number for 2005? Please shed some light! Greatly appreciated!

Help Plz!

I was struck by the answer given by Schweser too; where do they get the employer contribution figure of \$5000 from?

from the footnote p. 130

Its a should be a given number, like go4it says, somewhere in the footnotes,…unless the question specifically asks you to derive it.

thanks go4it, but I couldnot find a direct quote of employer contribution 5000 from that last paragraph? Am I missing something, or do I have to do a calculation?

aselifu Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > thanks go4it, but I couldnot find a direct quote > of employer contribution 5000 from that last > paragraph? Am I missing something, or do I have to > do a calculation? it says 5 million. everything else is quoting it at thousands, so you have to convert it from 5 million to 5,000.

Glory to be xmas! Finally a resolution to this conundrum! I’ve been puzzled by this ‘ommission’ for the past few days… Thanks for your words of wisdom cfano1!!

thanks a bundle cfano1!