given FV= 10,000 n=1 i=12 PV = ? obviously, the pv can be found via the calculator. can i determine the present value factor on the TI BA II instead of using the tables?
(1/1.12^1) so 10,000/1.12^1 = PV
im asking about present value FACTOR using n=1 i=12, not the present value
PV factor = 1/(1+.12)^1
thanks
cjones65 Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > (1/1.12^1) That’s not the same thing?
sure looks like it.
cjones65 Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > cjones65 Wrote: > -------------------------------------------------- > ----- > > (1/1.12^1) > > > That’s not the same thing? Hmmm you could be on to something.
the present value factor is the number you multiple either your FV or PV with. So it’s either (1+i)^n in PV*(1+i)^n or 1/(1+i)^n in FV*(1/(1+i)^n). Why can’t all CFA exams be like this?
My manager just got back from a 4-month maternity leave she took to adopt a baby. Four months to ADOPT a baby. What really bothers me is that she’s been blabbering on about it all morning.
you gotta get out of starbucks and get real job!!!
cjones65 Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > My manager just got back from a 4-month maternity > leave she took to adopt a baby. Four months to > ADOPT a baby. > > What really bothers me is that she’s been > blabbering on about it all morning. This is gold because it has nothing to do with the thread title. Ananda thread #2
cjones65 Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > My manager just got back from a 4-month maternity > leave she took to adopt a baby. Four months to > ADOPT a baby. > > What really bothers me is that she’s been > blabbering on about it all morning. Pardon my ignorance but why do you need four months of maternity leave to adopt a baby? Why do you need ANY time of for maternity leave if you are adopting a kid? If I adopt a puppy can I have maternity leave?
It beats me – I want to adopt one every year, but I’m not sure it applies to fathers who are adopting, which makes just as little sense.
It is called present value factor for a reason, it lets you find present value of some amount in the future. You multiply FV by the PVFactor. What it really is - present value of $1 in the future TheAliMan Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > the present value factor is the number you > multiple either your FV or PV with. So it’s either > (1+i)^n in PV*(1+i)^n or 1/(1+i)^n in > FV*(1/(1+i)^n). > > Why can’t all CFA exams be like this?