The CFA Level I book states that PVBP can be solved by multiplying ModDur by the Full Price of the bond and then multiplying to 0.0001 (a basis point).

However, this just doesn’t compute for me. If ModDur is the change in the price of a bond due to a 1% (100 bp) change in the yield, a 1 bp change should be 1% of that value. In other words, I view the calculation as .01*ModDur*Full Price of the Bond.

Can someone explain what I am missing?