private wealth managment questions

If you look at Q7 in 2005, and Q1 in 2006, you will find, upon doing cash flows analysis, there is investment income and related taxes at time 0, but no investment income and related taxes at time 1. Could anybody tell me why? Thanks!

Is possible that the answer provided by CFAI was wrong?

very unlikely

I believe @ T1 that income is included in his overall asset base …also if you read the Q carefully it says "@ the end if the yr " meanin current yr with no reference to future earnings or income