PWM - example 1 and wages of 50,000 using growth

I keep see questions like this and it’s always different in the solutions. Here the salary is 50,000 currently. Does that not mean his salary at end of year is 50,000? That is how real life and our salaries are. For example, if my salary is currently 120,000, this would be my salary OVER the year. I should use this 120,000 value for the 1st EOY value.

At the end of year 1, they put salary of 51,000 using 2% salary growth. I would have 50,000 is my salary for end of year 1. Then it would be 51,000 over year 2.

Boston mocks did it different, another question did it another way, which way is correct? Is this BB example correct? I think it’s wrong.

You just have to be careful with wording in question
Think like dividend discount. Currently D(o) expected to be D(1)