# Quant Simple Q for those in the Know...

I have seen some similar posts but I’m to thick to grasp it yet so help would be appreicated.

F - stat = 160, Significance of F =0

This F stat given above is termed as being significant…

However, I don’t see why?? The F-stat is not below the significance and therefore I would have thought the null cannot be rejected F =0, and thereby it is not significant… Obviously I’m wrong for some reason, but please help show me the light, the path and the way!!!

If you had a critical F-value, you would compare the F-statistic (observed) to this. If F-stat (observed) > F-stat (critical) , then reject Ho. This would indicate significance.

The significance of F is the observed significance of the test, the p-value. If this is less than the chosen significance level, alpha, then reject Ho. Here, the p-value is practically 0, so we know it will be less than any level of alpha we would choose (or the level stated in the question). We can say the F-test is significant.

Either approach will give you the same answer.

A p-value < alpha implies that F-stat (observed) > F-stat (critical). Also, if F-stat (observed) > F-stat (critical) we can conclude that the p-value< alpha. Relatively large (observed) test statistics indicate statistical significance in the same way that relatively small p-values indicate statistical significance. The inequalities are still true if you flip them.

Great thanks tickersu, that explanation really helps

Glad to be of help!