Z-spread or static spread is not constant. When the volatility increases, the OAS could increase/decrease since it reflects the credit risk, liquidity risk and etc. – please correct me if I’m wrong. OAS does not reflect the default risk.
“because the OAS adjusts to compensate the investor for selling the prepayment option to the homeowner, OAS tends to widen when the expected volatility increases and narrow when expected volatility decreases”.
It seems, OAS does indeed increase “to compensate” for the value of the embedded option…
Here Spread is sum of option cost = cost of bearing prepayment risk + OAS - compensation for bearing the remaining risk (i.e. spread risk, volatility risk, model risk, interest rate risk)
1)Now Spread risk - usually not hedged coz that is the whole purpose of investing in MBS.
Int rate risk = hedged by selling T notes/futures. Now investor earns T bill + Spread (#1 mentions it is not usually hedged)
Model risk - can not hedge.
Prepayment risk - now what I understood is when int rate increase, prepayment period extends (i.e. like in a floating mortgage loan - if interest rate increases & you don’t wish to change ur monthly mortagage cost (EMI) your tenor increases in amortization schedule). When interest rate decreases, prepayment period shortens.
This means that mortgage duration is increasing (i guess due to increase in prepayment period) when interest rate increases & mortgage duration decreases when int rate decreases. This is against our desire. I mean we would like duration to increase when int rate goes down (to make it more sensitive to int rate to capture larger gains) & duration to decrease when int rate goes up (to loose less). To hedge we need to buy options or hedge dynamically. Hedging dynamically will require us to to increase duration (buy futures) when rates decline & decrease duration (selling futures when int rate increase. )
Volatility risk - now option has feature of increase with increase in volatility & vice versa We have sold prepay option. I think now when volatility increases, option cost increases. Since we are short on option, effect to us is opposite. So OAS tends to widen with increase in volatility. We can hedge volatility again by buying options or hedging dynamically.
I think the OAS tends to widen with ragard to in crease in EXPECTED volatility.
The EXPECTED volatility and the REALIZED volatility are tow different things.
My point is: the manager developed his own expected volatility(which refers to the implied volatility),and compares it with the realized volatility.If the former exceeds the latter,the manager hedges dynamicly,or purchases options in the opposite situation.
I think the OAS tends to widen with ragard to in crease in EXPECTED volatility.
The EXPECTED volatility and the REALIZED volatility are tow different things.
My point is: the manager developed his own expected volatility(which refers to the implied volatility),and compares it with the realized volatility.If the former exceeds the latter,the manager hedges dynamicly,or purchases options in the opposite situation.
I think implied volatilty is which you infer based on the current cost of option. Now manager forms an expectation of the future realized volatiltiy (actual over the term of option). If he thinks implied volatility is more (means option price is incorporating higher volatility in future & trading at high cost) than future realized volatility, he hedges dynamically (buying/shorting T notes/futures)
Investor of MBS is short an option in the form of the homeowners’ right to prepay the mortgages.
Since this optionalty is a benefit to the homeowner and a detriment to the investor when interest volatility is high,the investor must be compensated via a wider OAS.
Since the OAS is added to the spot curve to discount MBS cashflows, a higher OAS means a lower price for the investor.
Hence if an investor is presented with two otherwise identical MBS products he/she would prefer the one with a higher OAS, as this implies [a] Lower price,[b]Higher yield.
Expected volatility = Market’s expectation about volatility
Implied volatility = volatility implied by the current option cost. I think black scholes model can help us derive this.
Realized volatiltiy = actual realized volatility during the term of option.
Now if implied volatility is higher than the manager thinks actual realized volatility would be in the future - can hedge thru futures.
Why not options? I think due to high implied volatility reflecting in the current cost of option but it is expected to come down (realized volatility would be lower) one way to gain now is go short on the option trading at a higher price & buy back later. BUT since you are already short on the option embedded in MBS, you can only buy option to hedge it. You would hedge dynamically here (by shorting future)