I don’t know if it is typo in the solution or I don’t understand how they got 784? The number just came out of no where. Shouldn’t it be 964 instead of 784?
the expected payoff at maturity of a variance swap is
variance notional x ( expected variance to maturity – original strike squared)
expected variance is 964 as calculated, so i am assuming it’s a typo?
Just need a sanity check thanks.