Reading 14_Capital Market Expectations_Practice Problem_Q5B

Why the Sharpe ratio for each of the industry is not used for the answer of part B, since we have calculated the risk premium in part A and we have the standard deviation of each industry?

Part B asks to only interpret the values derived in part A, which are the risk premiums. Higher the risk premiums, higher the expected returns. The Sharpe ratio has already been used in calculating the risk premiums.