I thought I had this topic down pretty well, but apparently not. The answer to question 26 says that there’s no goodwill. Not too sure why b/c if using partial goodwill… PP = 320 FV of net assets = 580 % of FV of net assets acquired = .5 * 580= 290 320-290= 30 goodwill Where am I going wrong?
Never mind, found my answer here http://www.analystforum.com/phorums/read.php?12,1227090,1227259#msg-1227259. These minute details are really tripping me up 