Anyone else think this question was worded terribly? Essentially if you rephrase the statement #1 it says:
“Being GIPS compliant … allows us … to improve the quality of information availible to our investement decision makers.” (pg366)
While I agree that there is a possibility that new technology as mentioned earlier in the reading is a valid case of improved quality of information I don’t see any such situation clearly identified in the vignette.
While its likely something to get upset after June 2nd I just thought I’d see if anyone else read this and thought, did that person just say that becoming GIPS compliant gave their investment staff previously unavailible, but yet valuable information? Not sure I want my $$ at a firm that needs a performance standard requirment to be the reason there PM’s start getting better info.