Reading 46 EOC ? 5

In the CFA book, it says its a non-recourse loan but yet the lender forecloses the loan and sells the property for $315,000. The answer says the lender is entitled to $0. However, the explanation says they are entitled to the proceeds from the sale. Thus, should the answer not be $315,000, which is not a choice, rather than $0?

TIA!

But the question is “what amount is the lender entitled to claim from Martin?” . Yes, they are entitled to the proceed from the sales but nothing from Martin.