Having a difficult time understanding when to use normalized earnings instead of reported earnings. Specifically, the question below uses reported earnings.
Assume a minority shareholder holds 10% of a private firm’s equity, with the CEO holding the other 90%. Using normalized earnings, the value of the firm’s equity is estimated at $20 million. The CEO refuses to sell the firm and the minority shareholder cannot sell their interest easily. A discount for lack of marketability (DLOM) of 15% will be applied. A discount for lack of control (DLOC) will also be estimated. Using reported earnings instead of normalized earnings provides an estimated firm equity value of $19 million. Which of the following is closest to the value of the minority shareholder’s equity interest?
The answer used the reported earnings. Is it related to the fact that the CEO will not sell the firm anytime soon?