Q from eoc cfa book
Wilson’s board has also approved capital spending of US$15 million to be entirely funded out of this year’s earnings.
Book value of equity US$750 million (US$30 a share) Shares outstanding 25 million 12-month trading range US$25–US$35 Current share price US$35 After-tax cost of borrowing 7% Estimated full year earnings US$25 million Last year’s dividends US$9 million Target capital structure (market value) 35% debt, 65% equity
Assume that Wilson Chemical funds its capital spending out of its estimated full year earnings. If Wilson uses a residual dividend policy, determine Wilson’s implied dividend payout ratio.
- 36%.
- 40%.
- 60%
the correct answer is B which I ended up getting correct but by guessing. My calculations were as follows. Capital spending is $15 million dollars and the capital structure is 35% debt and 65% equity. so I did .35*$15 million= $5.25 million. the remaining is equity which is $19.75 million dollars. $9 million in dividends were paid so thats 9/19.75= 45%. why is this not correct? cfa uses this method instead which is $25 million- $15 million= 10 million in equity/25= 40%. this doesnt make sense to me. I used my method for another question which is below and got it right.
“The Apex Corp. has a target capital structure of 40% debt and 60% equity. Its capital budget for next year is estimated to be US$40 million. Estimated net income is US$30 million. If Apex follows a residual dividend policy, its dividend is expected to be”- Answer is US$6 million which I got by 40%*40 million = 16 million debt. net income - debt that has to be paid off first= $24 million dollars left over in equity. the remainder is $30 in net income - $24 million in equity = $6 million in dividends.
can someone please explain to me whats the difference between these 2 questions are and why my method doesn’t work for the 1st question posted?