Residual Income - answer check

Schweser Rd 42

Concept Checker:

#1 ) It’s a standard multistage RI model which assumes persistent RI after five years of $11.25. I understand the problem but am confused on the discounting periods. The answer has the continuing RI or terminal value discounted from t=5 (or (1+r)^5)…WHY IS IT NOT 4-PERIODS (or T-1 which would be (1+r)^4) ???

#2 ) The question gives a stock price that was priced with an assumption of continuing residual income at a persistent level forever, and asks which of the 3 other related continuing residual income assumptions would result in a stock price that is lower than the given $68 share price.

I understand why any assumption with a persistence factor equal to or greater than 0 but less than 1 would cause a lower stock price but how can you assume that the 4th assumption (CRI leveling off at a long-run industry average will result in a lower stock price ??? WIthout having specific numbers to verify, how do you know that the long-run industry average isn’t higher than the assumed level in perpetuity that was used to price the stock originally (which would result in a higher price, not lower)??

Please help, and thanks in advance! Regards

I think i’ve started to figure out my first question. Schweser changes how they discount (the discounting periods, that is) for residual income problems - discouting the terminal/PVCRI to T-1. This struck me as odd at first but realized that it’s really the same as we’ve always done it. Though i can’t seem to reconcile the discounting difference for problems where persistence is 0 8 .) Ke 12.0% Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 PV Cont RI (terminal) Residual Income 17.4 20.2 23.4 27.2 33.171 BVt=0 435 W = 0.3 rate of decay PV 15.536 16.103 16.656 17.286 21.081 BV PVHG PVCRI **Should be 8.45** 8.69 = 435 + 65.581 + 21.081 converted to per share basis in last step

Nevermind. Tried to post from excel but it got screwed. Does anyone know why traditional discouting periods for RI problems for persistence 0