Why is the disturbance term homoskedastic? I am trying to understand why a constant variance assumes homoskedasticity

A constant variance doesn’t _ **assume** _ homoskedasticity; a constant variance _ **is the definition of** _ homoskedasticity.

Without a formal definition, as S2000 said, homoscedasticity means that the variance of the random error term is constant for all settings of the indepdendent variables. Informal word analysis as a memory aid: Homo-same scedasticity- a funky word in statistics to talk about the variance or spread of the errors----> errors have the same variance across all settings of the independent variables!

Thanks guys!

You’re welcome.