Which of the following statements about upward revaluations of long-lived assets is most accurate?
a.)U.S. GAAP only allows reversal of impairment losses for assets held-for-sale.
b.)IFRS only allows increases in the value of long-lived assets to the extent of previously recognized revaluation losses.
c)Under IFRS, reversal of revaluation loss does not affect shareholders’ equity
I thought the answer is B. A is correct, can anyone explain why