Nicholas Bennett, CFA, is atrader at a stock exchange. Another trader approached Bennett on the floor of the exchange and verbally harassed him about a poorly executed trade. Bennett pushed the trader and knocked him to the ground. Which of the following best describes Bennett’s conduct? Bennett: A. Did not violate either the CFA Code of Ethics or any Standards of Professional Conduct B. Violated Code of Ethics but not Standards of Professional Conduct C. Violated the code of ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct D. Violated the Code of ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct that relate to Miscounduct and Duty to Employer
id say A, but answers C
since he pushed him to the ground while at work —> violation. would go with c,
yeah i went with A…but now that i think about it…freaking out at work and pushing someone to the ground definitely violates professional conduct
I’m curious tho, another situation is that a CFA guy gets DUI after work, but he’s not in violation of any SoP???
after work vs during work makes the difference…
london, i remember some questions like these from schweser, where he was drunk, got a ticket but it was in his leisure time —> no violation
yeah i saw that one too…that question is pretty much the reason i answered no violation on this one…So it seems if you act unprofessional at work your in violation…if your outside of the office you can be unprofessional as long as your not lying, cheating, stealing, or participating in some kind of fraud.
^which is ridiculous if you ask me. So its ok to go out and get DUI’s, beat your wife, kick your dogs, yell profanity at your neighbor…yet if you come to work on time your good to go! What about going to the strip club during lunch time. I’d be interested to find out if that constitutes a violation even though it could be deemed “leisure”…
i read that it depends on whether or not you disclose this information to your employer.
Oh, and by the way…I can’t believe they ask a question about fighting at work yet have both C and D as a possibilty…I mean, c’mon…like it really matters if you violated the code and standard of conduct or if you violated that AND it refered to Misconduct…
london, where does it say that?
i was just kidding around…sorry for the confusion
jalamy8 wrote: ^which is ridiculous if you ask me. So its ok to go out and get DUI’s, beat your wife, kick your dogs, yell profanity at your neighbor…yet if you come to work on time your good to go! What about going to the strip club during lunch time. I’d be interested to find out if that constitutes a violation even though it could be deemed “leisure”… ---- what if your wife is works in your office, your dog is the company mascot, and your neighbor is your boss? then home life is linked to work… and going to a strip club during lunch is ok as long as you do not discuss a potential tender offer while getting a couch dance and come back to the office drunk and start day trading your client’s money away. ---- sorry. just thought i’d throw some humor on top of some of the ridiculous rules. i came across a question that stated it’s a voilation to get into a fight during an intramural company basketball game. (im paraphrasing, but it was something like that).
xavier, lol… or as long as (after the lap dance) you show up in clothes at work and are not intoxicated…
he’d be involation cuz SOP1A states that he must know the local law. If he gets DUI, then wouldn’t that be a breach of local law? Would 1A only applies to work and investments?
jalmy8 Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > ^which is ridiculous if you ask me. So its ok to > go out and get DUI’s, beat your wife, kick your > dogs, yell profanity at your neighbor…yet if you > come to work on time your good to go! > > What about going to the strip club during lunch > time. I’d be interested to find out if that > constitutes a violation even though it could be > deemed “leisure”… In that case, maybe Michael Vick has a future in Analyst work if that football “thing” doesn’t work out.
CFALondon0109 Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > i read that it depends on whether or not you > disclose this information to your employer. Yea, but wouldn’t you have to disclose before the fact? e.g. tell your employer that you’re gonna lay the smack down on some other trader before you push him 
Well, I get how he violates Code of Ethics by not “respecting” others in the investment profession, but how did he violate misconduct? Where is he being deceitful? Or is this what you would be called “damaging reputation of the investment professional”?
CFALondon0109 Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > Nicholas Bennett, CFA, is atrader at a stock > exchange. Another trader approached Bennett on > the floor of the exchange and verbally harassed > him about a poorly executed trade. Bennett pushed > the trader and knocked him to the ground. Which > of the following best describes Bennett’s conduct? > Bennett: > > A. Did not violate either the CFA Code of Ethics > or any Standards of Professional Conduct > B. Violated Code of Ethics but not Standards of > Professional Conduct > C. Violated the code of ethics and Standards of > Professional Conduct > D. Violated the Code of ethics and Standards of > Professional Conduct that relate to Miscounduct > and Duty to Employer So what is the correct answer for this one?
it’s C