I understand that those who activley accumulate wealth throughout their life typically have a higher risk tolerance to those who passivley accumulate through savings, inheritence, one time events, etc. but would this be enough of a reason to list when they ask for why the individual can tolerate higher risk?
It would seem to me that it might be kind of wishy/washy since it’s not reflective of all entrepreneurs so it’s best to look for another reason, but just wondering your thoughts.