My understanding is that in the question pointed by you, the data given is index return and not the change in futures price. The index return assumes fully collateralized position and hence includes collateral yield.
The index is not a futures contract , it is a regular market benchmark. So how will it have collateral yield embedded ? I have never seen any index with a cllateral yield .
The futures market with its margining requirement necessarily has to have collateral because that is how they mitigate risk to the exchange and yet pay the investor for their deposit.
1, Roll return = change in futures price - change in the spot price 2, Collateral return is the return you earn when you post 100% margin(collaterals), which is usualy the risk free rate.
Yes, you can calculate the roll return from the following formula, but it doesn’t mean that Roll Return and Collaterial Return have no direct relationship. To earn the total commodity futures return, you hold futures coontracts and post 100% margin.
Total commodity futures return = spot return + collateral return + roll return
Ahhhh I think I get it. So the change in futures price is only due to the spot return + roll return, right? But your total return on the futures position is a combination of the change in futures price + the theoretical return you get from having your margin earning the risk-free rate. Is that right?