One of the derivatives CFAI topic exam questions indicate that :
Parisi is incorrect about the risk between mark-to-market dates. Kwon has entered into a short forward contract. If the price of the contract rises higher than its price at inception between dates when the contract is marked to the market, it is Kwon’s counterparty that would be exposed to credit risk, not Kwon. Kwon would be exposed to credit risk only if the contract price falls to less than its price at inception.
I don’t understand why if you’re short a forward and the price of the contract rises, then you would not be exposed. Aren’t you short the forward?