Dont understand how we lock in a price using this method?
Does anyone have a good grasp of this?
Dont understand how we lock in a price using this method?
Does anyone have a good grasp of this?
dude, chill out… its in the text…
All it is… is borrowing shares of what you own, and then shorting them. You have a riskless position earning the riskfree rate. Now you have money from your short to do whatever you like.
Thats what I dont understand- why do we have to borrow them and then sale shorts?
Cant we just sell shorts directly?
Selling short = borrowing them + selling them
Let me try to simplify it. (good if someone can confirm)
You can simply sell them and be done with the position, why bother borrowing and selling short? Because that will cause tax liability.
If you don’t want to incur tax liability, you can sell them short. But you’ll have to deliver the shares. So you borrow shares instead of using your own.
This way you are long and short both so its not considered an outright sale and will not incur tax liability.
Whoever lent you those stocks, will use your long stocks as colleteral and you’ll earn risk free return on them.
Yes the whole idea is to “hedge” risk on the concentrated asset(s) without having to trigger an immediate taxable situation.
But wont borrowing also have a cost (risk-free return paid). I understand now that we are neutral stock position but dont see how risk free return is locked in?
BUMP
Here’s my take on it:
Hope this helps!
OMGMileyCyrus