QPizza = 11 – 0.70 P(pizza) + 0.009I – 0.20 P(cola) We’re given the inputs for income and price of cola - it wants to know the slop of the demand curve for pizza. Why in the world does the CFA institute want the inverse demand equation to get the slope of the demand curve? They arrange the formula as P(pizza) = 21.79 – 1.43 Q(pizza) -> how is -1.43 the slope of the demand curve? Why in the world is it not just -.70. Quantity demanded is a function of (dependent) price. I still don’t understand why we need to rearrange the formula in terms of price as a function of quanitity demanded - why is THAT the demand curve?