The formula of the single stage residual income valuation is the following:

V_{0}=B_{0}+ (ROE-R)B_{0}/(r-g).

If this formula is similar as to when we do the constant dividend growth model where p=d_{0}(1+g)/(r-g). Why isnt the numerator of the single stage residual income valuation also multiplied by (1+g). Arent we not assuming that the RI grows constantly forever?