When calculating the required terminal value we take the PV(Assets) and x (1 + (min required return/2)) ^ Tx2
PV(Liabilities) is then Required Terminal Value/ (1 + (immunization rate/2))^ Tx2
If there is a surplus you can continue a contingent immunization strategy…
but lets say that the immunization rate and the minimum required return are the same here - that means that a portfolio is immunized, correct? Because the present value of the assets equals the present value of the liabilities? (as long as the range in duration of the assets is greater than the liabilities that is)