Hello,
Can someone please clarify this for me?
EOC question 1: If depreciation increases by 100 why does FCFF increase by only 40? If there are two formulas for FCFF involving depreciation how do we know which to use when?
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FCFF = EBIT(1-t) + D-FCINv-WCINV
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FCFF = EBITDA (1-t) + Dt - FCINV - WCINV
Same thing for Interest increasing by 100 but FCFE decreasing by 60 and FCFF not being affected?
- FCFF = NI+NCC+I(1-t) - FCINV- WCINV
It is my impression that FCFF formula can be manipulated to get FCFE and vice versa but that is not always the case?
Thank you.
Both depreciation and interest are tax deductible, so you capture the tax benefit associated with both in arriving at FCFE. That benefit is equal to the amount times the tax rate. Interest doesn’t affect FCFF, only FCFE.
It’s still not clear to me. For example if interest doesn’t affect FCFF then why is it included in the formula for FCFF?
Also when calculating FCFF using the formula below depreciation (NCC) before tax is included and not only the tax benefit.
FCFF = NI + NCC + I(1-t) - FCINV - WCINV
Given all the information in a question how do you know which is the best formula to use since I don’t seem to get the same answers when I use different formulas.
For simplication, let us assuming that Company A has cost only Depreciation.
So FCFF= (Sale - Dep)*(1-t) + Dep = Sale*(1-t) + t*Dep
If Dep increase 100 =>> FCFF up t*100 (if t=40%, FCFF up 40)