3 part question.
What percentage of ownership of a company contitutes a parent-subsidiary relationship? Did a google search and it looks like 51% to contitute the consolidation of financial statements. Can someone confirm that?
Why do you report all of the subsidiary’s income on the income statement and then subtract out the “noncontrolling interest” instead of only reporting controlling interest? Not meaning to make this a why ask why question, just wondering if there’s a bigger picture item here im not realizing.
Does anyone have a good example of this in practice? Maybe a company that you own or follow that displays this treatment on their income statement that I can take a look at? I don’t want to get off-track looking up companies trying to find a good example, nor do I want anyone else to waste their time if they don’t know one off the top of their head. I’d just really like to be able to apply this to the real world, rather than academic theory.
Thanks a bunch.