WMTC originally enters a five-year variable rate loan. Principal amount: $10,000,000. Rate: Libor + 200 basis points, paid semiannually, reset every six months. Loan rate was reset today at a Libor of 5%.
Company now thinks interest rate will increase.
To hedge the interest rate risk on the five-year variable rate loan, Lopez recommends that WMTC enter into a contract with Swap Traders International (STI), who offers an interest rate swap with a notional principal of $10 million that provides a fixed rate of 6% in exchange for Libor, with semiannual payments.
The way it is written, it makes it sound like STI will pay 6% fixed rate and receive Libor. But the proper way to set this up is to have STI pay Libor and receive fix.
They are in a loan and they are paying libor +2%. They are afraid rates are increasing, so they need a fixed rate. They take a swap as the payer. The net is the libors cancel out and ends up paying 6% + 2% = 8%.
I think that if they had written, “. . . that provides for a fixed rate . . .” it would have been clearer. To me, that would suggest only that they’re describing the two legs, not who would pay which one.