Terminal Price Multiples

I have a question on using the price multiple to calculate terminal value. Does the terminal multiple have to correspond to the number of years out, to which to terminal period is in. In other words, say our forecast period is 5 years + terminal period, our we using a multiple thats 5 years forward. The material cfai/schweser was unclear to me with how the timing works. I don’t understand how you could apply a trailing multiple to earnings that occur out several years in advance… If this is true, how is this useful at all? no anlaysts give a projected 5 year multiple? You’re lucky if you can get 2 years forward… Thanks