Textbook P349 simple calculation that confuses me!

Hi! I have 2 questions regarding this simple problem:

If I use my Texax Instruments BAII Plus calculator to enter the following: (under ordinary annuity mode)

I/Y: 7
PMT: 200,000
FV: 200,000 (actually the result is the same without entering the FV)

When computing PV, I get the result as 2,122,420.715. The textbook calculation for this step is 2,067,119.05. I understand the formula used in the textbook but I wonder why using the calculator yields a different result?

My second question is:a different approach will be viewing this as an annuity due (payment starting today of $200000 for the next 20 years), so under the mode of “BGN” of the calculator, if we enter the following:

I/Y: 7
PMT: 200,000
FV: 200,000

Then when computing PV, I get the result of 2,318,802.849. But the textbook’s result is 2,267,119.05. I’m totally lost!

Anyone can arrive at the same result as me? Any answer will be greatly appreciated!

I solved the calculation by replacing FV with zero for both “Ordinary” and “Due” mode. But another question is:if we go by the approach in the textbook, assume this is an ordinary annuity with 19 payments (only to add the first $200,000 at the end),shouldn’t the FV be $200,000 instead of zero, as the 19th payment is $200,000? Any thoughts? Thank you!

Problem solved again!

Explanation to the above question: as $200,000 is already counted when “PMT” is entered as 19, so it shouldn’t be counted again.