For the question valuing the currency swap below, why do they use the exchange rate on 1-Apr-13, and not 1-Apr-14 (when POL returns the euro to IIG [highlighted below]) ? Swap is driving me crazy… 
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You’re valuing the swap as on April '13 not as on Apr’14… The fx rate has to correspond to April’13 only right! Why the confusion, Simple isn’t it?
May I check how is the overnight interest rates used in this question for valuing the currency swap? Is OIS rate a kind of LIBOR?
At the end of a currency swap, the parties return _ exactly the notional amounts that they traded at the inception of the swap _, so the exchange rate is de facto the exchange rate at inception.
Hi sorry, appreciate if anyone could explain the bit on the use of Overnight interest Rates in this questions?
Sorry to bump this, much appreciate if anyone can assist, thank you.