Hello,
I am taking the CFA leve l 1 in June 2016. Anyways, while reading the statistics section for Schweser, I found a question I was stumped on:
It asked what measurement should be used to track a portfolio that it attempting to mimick returns on the market. I thought the answer was MAD of tracking error (mean absolute deviation). They said this was correct, but variance/standard devation of tracking error was a better measurement.
Can anyone explain to me why this is the case? I am confused and what love to know the answer, (intuitively of course).