Referring to EXAMPLE 12 from CFAI, page 291-
Evaluating Economic Forecasts (2)
…If the forecasts are unbiased, the intercept, b0, should be 0 and the slope, b1, should be 1. We should also find E(Actual change – Predicted change) = 0. If forecasts are actually unbiased, as long as b0= 0 and b1 = 1, the error term [Actual change − b0 − b1(Predicted change)] will have an expected value of 0, as required by Assumption 3 of the linear regression model. With unbiased forecasts, any other values of b0 and b1 would yield an error term with an expected value different from 0.
Can someone pls explain why any other values of b0 and b1 would yield an error term with an expected value different from 0?