I’m not sure how they derive: VA* = IR² / 4λ
starting with the formulae for ω* and VA, I get:
ω* = IR / 2λ
VA = ω IR - λω²
= IR (IR / 2λ) - λ(IR / 2λ)²
= IR² / 2λ - IR² / 4λ
I don’t see what’s next…
you r not alone there, i also ddnt understand how they arrived at the final formular after substituting the w* for optimal residual risk in the VA*
I then resorted to js cramming the final formula with understanding the derivation .