Variance of a multi-asset portfolio

Not able to understand how the formula for calculating variance for a multi-asset equal weighted portfolio is derived as: ∑(i=1 to n) * ∑(j=1 to n) weight of i * weight of j * Cov(Ri,Rj) I am referring to page 392 on Book 6 (2014 Version)

Any insight would he very helpful. Thanks.

You’re misinterpreting the notation; it isn’t a multiplication, it’s a _ double summation _:

∑(i=1 to n) {∑(j=1 to n) ([w_i_ × w_j_ × σ_i_ × σ_j_ × Cov(R_i_,R_j_)]}

This means that you let i = 1 while j runs from 1 to n, summing all the terms, then let i = 2 while j runs from 1 to n, summing all the terms, and so on, until you let i = n while j runs from 1 to n, summing all the terms; you then sum those (n) sums. (Note, too, that you forgot the sigmas.)

Nope, his original formula is correct. He was correct not to include the standard deviation of the two assets since the formula uses covariance.

To clarify, the correct formula is:

σp^2 = ∑(i=1 to n) {∑(j=1 to n) ([w_i_ × w_j_ × Cov(R_i_,R_j_)]} = ∑(i=1 to n) {∑(j=1 to n) ([w_i_ × w_j_ × σ_i_ × σ_j_ × correlation(R_i_,R_j_)]}

My mistake: I was thinking correlation and typing _ covariance _. Good catch.

I’ve made the correction.