An analysis I’m doing for my job is getting me an R^2 of about 0.71. Do you guys think thats good enough to make a formal argument?
just means that 70% of the variation is explained by your regression. You will need a qualitative style justification to solidify.
Doesn’t mean anything out of context…
engineer2finance Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > just means that 70% of the variation is explained > by your regression. …only if you have a constant. If you force zero, the interpretation is a bit different. Why am I on an L2 discussion forum? Ohh yea, haven’t done a deal since October. I’m so bored, somebody help me.