why not include coupon payment in FV numbers?

Maybe talking in riddles here, but please bear with me. Reading my SS notes on spot and forward rates, you have to include the final coupon amount with the par value in your calculations eg 3 yr bond paying 10% coupon on $100, in year 3 you get $110. Yet, from what i remember, we never include the coupon number in the final FV calculations for most bond problems? Any idea why? Am i making sense?

Nevermind…