Willingness to take risk, how to infer?

So - have come across two questions. Both of which where the person onws a large poisition in a low basis stock which makes up most of their portfolio. Now the first questions I came across - the answer said that because the client has a substancial holding in one stock this demonstrates a above average willingness to take risk.

In the second question the company which she holds a big position in is being taken over by another company and she states ‘The previous two years were substiancially rocky and am happy the MCTECH stock will be replaced, the new stock will also lower the vol of my investments for the next year while I am travelling’ so in this case apparently her willingness is below average.

I find these questions quite subjective. Surely her substial holding in ONE other stock shows an average willingness, no?

In the first instance, if she’s had that large position for a while, then yes the client demonstrated an above willingness to take risk because the client never took step to diversify her holdings.

In the second instance, client is happy stock will be replaced because the former stock is too volatile. This shows a below average willingness to take risk. She prefers lower volatility.