CFA Level 1, 2 and 3 or Level 1,2 and 3 exams? Which one is correct? EOC question states level 1,2,3 are good. I thought we always need to mention the word test or exam afterwards.Any thoughts on this?
“If the IPO is oversubscribed, he excludes his wife’s discretionary non-fee-paying account so that he is not accused of bias.”
Text states this is right way to do. But do they need to treat family members the same as other client?
Thanks!
Thoughts? I don’t think you’re playing with a full deck.
#butgoodluck
I’m not sure what you’re asking here. Is this something that a candidate wrote on a résumé or LinkedIn page or some such thing?
Other clients pay fees.
dududu i thought the same thing about Q2(fair dealing) and answered incorrectly.CFA says in solutions that when an issue is oversubscribed, allocations cannot be made to accounts where members and candidates have beneficial interest, client orders must be filled first.
Thanks for the reponses!
It is a EOC question 9 of the ethics chapter.
“…promotional material that he designed for the business describes the CFA requirements and indicates that Tye participates in the CFA program and has completed Level 1 and 2.”
The answer indicates that this is a correct statement.
At first, I thought we need to say something like Level 1 and 2 exam/test instead of just level 1 and 2 direclty.
I think this is the tricky part. I guess if the members parents or uncles/aunts accounts, we should be fine then since that is what remember seeing before.